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Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India



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This term was in news context of the Vodafone taxation case. Answer is “D”.


How was this explanation?

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